Please my friend needs help with these questions. They have a drug test with their doc in three days, it's for a checkup of a prescription they receive. They have to use someone else's urine, will the lab be able to tell if its female or male? They have done research and have read that yes it's possible to tell but they don't test for it and it's illegal to test for it unless you sign a consent. Now they have signed a "contract" with their doctor when they started their prescription of amphatamines, but that was years ago, would they put that kind of consent in a contract for a prescription? Also, the urine they will be using won't have amphatmines present, will it makes sense if they say they've been sick as a dog these past few days and haven't been able to keep anything down for over like..48hrs meaning they haven't taken their amphatamines...? They've heard they get out of your system pretty quick...so would that story work? Thank you!