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| New Member Join Date: Feb 2007
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| I have a question, I'm not really sure how this effects my drug screen. Last night I partied (had maybe 8 or more cups of beer). Woke up this morning at around 9:30 AM and pissed. About 15 minutes later I had maybe 10 FL OZ of water with 2 500MG aspirin and went back to bed. At 11:30 I woke up and tested myself midstream with a home test. My piss was pretty dark yellow as I was still pretty dehydrated and I passed with a pretty faint line. I guess my question is could the beer I drank last night help cause a negative, or would it work against me? Tomorrow morning is my drugscreen and I plan on doing the same thing I did this morning (minus all the beer tonight). I can't dilute as my results came back diluted last time and the lady told me not to drink anything before I came in tomorrow morning. Any help would be appreciated ![]() |
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| | #2 |
| Jr. Member Join Date: Mar 2007
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| I'm not certain, but I think the only way alcohol can affect a test is by messing with your hydration levels. Since its effects are gone from your system (assuming you drank a few glasses of water today), and you test isn't until tomorrow, your test shouldn't be effected by the drinking you did. Don't quote me as fact though... I am no human nutritionist or expert on the inner workings of human systems and organs. I drink beer every night and was considering dilution, so information similar to what you are after was big on my list of "things to research". Please note that I am not 100% sure of this, but probably about 90% sure. Someone with more knowledge please either correct me if I'm wrong, or reinforce my reply, for the sake of Chadrice. |
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| | #3 |
| New Member Join Date: Feb 2007
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| what i was really wondering was if drinking all that beer could have caused me to somehow have a false negative this morning... or whether or not it caused my pee to be super concentrated because i was dehydrated giving me even better chances for the real thing tomorrow? |
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| | #4 | ||
| Buddhist Curmudgeon ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() ![]() Join Date: Aug 2004
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| | #5 | |
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I think you're arguing the same point as I am but thanks for you're help ![]() | |
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| | #6 |
| Jr. Member Join Date: Mar 2007
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| I think I know what you are looking for, hard to tell from the original text. Your home test (which you say came back negative), was performed after a night of alcohol consumption. This had the effect of concerntrating your urine more than normal 'first void of the day' tests. You're asking if the fact that you passed your test while being extra concentrated indicates that you are more likely to pass while being normally hydrated or even a little diluted? If I understand your exact query correctly this time, then my answer is.... I don't think it would make that much of a difference. The reason people home test with the first piss of the day is so that... if they pass while concentrated, they can more likely pass while hydrated. Drinking the beer effectively concentrated your urine. However, you woke up, urinated, drank water and took aspirin. Then you slept for almost 2 hours and used your second piss of the day for your home test, and passed. I think that there are waaaay too many variables (and person to person differences in biological systems) to be accounted for... and I highly doubt that there would be any factual answer. I am entirely certain, however, that far more knowledgable people on this community may be able to shed more light for you. [Edit: Examples of the variables: The speed in which different people process alcohol, your level of hydration before starting drinking alcohol, the amount of non-alcoholic liquid you consumed during and after drinking alcohol, the exact effect of not using first piss, the exact effect of the 10 oz of water you drank before the second void you tested with, etc. Too many, IMO.] I now realized I could have used 1 word to express all this.... "Maybe". But hindsight is 20/20..... lol |
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